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Originally Posted by eyecu2
With that whole section 1 that says the states will have sole determination on how elections happen blah blah blah-.... it's a MAGA problem.
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You obviously don't understand the Constitution. The Elections Clause (Article 1, Section 4, Clause 1) does not give the states
SOLE determination of how elections happen. Here's the language. Read it and learn:
"The Times, Places and Manner of holding Elections for Senators and Representatives, shall be prescribed in each State by the Legislature thereof; but the Congress may at any time by Law make or alter such Regulations, except as to the Places of choosing Senators."
You also don't understand recent US history. Following passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965, and until the SCOTUS issued its 2013 Shelby Country v. Holder opinion, the feds required many Southern states to obtain "pre-clearance" of their voting rules from the DOJ to ensure there was no voter discrimination. How the fuck did such federal oversight occur for 48 years if, as you claim, states have SOLE determination over the vote? Please explain.
Quote:
Originally Posted by eyecu2
Imagine ANY Dem trying to change voting systems, processes or who counts the votes...
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We don't have to imagine this. It's already happened! Did you forget Nancy Pelosi's HR-1 "For the People Act"? It passed the House in 2021, before dying in the Senate. Look it up!
Nancy's bill would have inter alia limited the ability of the states to clean up their voting rolls, guaranteed the right to vote for all felons, and required every state to offer automatic same-day registration, a minimum of 15 days' early voting and no-excuse absentee/mail-in balloting.
You probably think it's ok for the Dems to attempt to rig federal voting rules for their benefit, but it's an outrage whenever the GOP fights back and tries to turn off some of the spigots enabling voting fraud.